Hmmm

This semester I'm taking a class called the Biblical Theology of Worship. I've heard this class raved about - some friends of mine say it was the best class they've ever taken at Wheaton. I appreciate the class, though I don't think it would have even crossed my mind to say it was the best class I've had yet at Wheaton.

A month ago in class, Dr. Block shocked all of us by telling us that nowhere in the Bible does anyone ever tell God that he loves Him, the corollary being nor should we. This isn't to say that there aren't commands in the Bible to love the Lord or statements that "this person loved the Lord", but he asserts that nowhere is it written in the Bible, "I love the Lord." He says this is because it is presumptuous of us to make such a declaration - who are we to say we measure up to what the word "love" means? We're the worst judge of whether or not our disposition to God is right.

Typically in the Bible expressions of love come from a superior to an inferior, not the other way around. An interesting exception is in I Samuel 18:20 - now Saul's daughter Michal loved David. But we can understand this exception by recognizing that Michal is a princess loving a farm boy.

Of course, Dr. Block welcomed people to challenge him and had a response prepared for every reference brought in opposition.

Psalm 18:1 - I love you, O Lord, my strength.
Dr. Block says the word here translated "love" actually means "to have compassion" This word is rarely found with a first person singular pronoun and is usually used from the superior to the inferior. He argues that the poet doesn't want to use the word for "to love" so he uses this one even though it's awkward.

Psalm 116:1 - I love the Lord, because he has heard my voice and my pleas for mercy.
Here he responds by saying that the object of the word "to love" is not the Lord. The Hebrew actually says "I love because the Lord heard my prayer." Again the poet avoids the construction "I love the Lord."

The final passage was, of course, John 21:15-19. Each time Jesus asks "Do you love me?" he uses the verb form of agape love which means to be covenantally committed. When Peter responds with "You know I love you, Lord" he uses a different word - the word for horizontal relationships. (phileo) Peter had just denied Jesus - who was he to claim that he was covenantally committed to the Lord. Dr. Block says the Lord was testing Peter with this question, and Peter passed the test because he refused to claim more than the truth.

Dr. Block repeatedly said the text doesn't say "If you love me, tell me." It says "if you love me, you will keep my commandments." Words are easy; the proof of love is not in them. If we sing, "I love you, Lord" we are praising ourselves. Rather than glory in our love, we should glory in His love. Our prayer instead should be "Lord, my love is so pathetic. Help me to love you as you love me."

I know that the proof of love is not in words, that I should glory in God's love not my own, that my love is pathetic, and that I fail at being covenantally committed, but I guess because I'm a child of the 20th century (or 21st?) and the claim that I shouldn't say that I love God is so foreign to me, that even after all this I still raise the eyebrow a little bit. Our word "love" doesn't have the depth of meaning that the Greek agape does. When I say I love my puppies or morning glories or a good cup of tea, I'm not claiming to be covenantally committted to them. But then, I wouldn't want to say "I love God" in the same breath and perhaps give the impression that those types of love are equal. And when I say "I love my brother" isn't it understood that I'm not claiming to have perfect love?

Another thing is, now when I hear people say that they love God I'm prone in my self-righteousness to think "No, no, no - you can't say that!" instead of rejoicing in their committment to Him or remembering that I ought to love God and to show that love by keeping His commandments.

Thoughts?